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Released: 2005-02-01 | Explicit: No | Album: Las Mejores Cumbias Con Acordeon (Vol. 3) | Label: Unknown Genre: Unknown | Country: Unknown

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chemistry essay for waec 2023

Waec gce chemistry questions and answers 2023 – objectives and essay.

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The West African Examination Council (WAEC) conducts the GCE Chemistry exam for Senior School Certificate candidates. If you are preparing for the 2023 WAEC GCE Chemistry exam, you might be wondering about the types of questions you can expect and how to effectively prepare for them. In this comprehensive guide, we will provide you with valuable insights and tips to help you excel in the exam. We will cover both the objective and essay sections, providing you with a complete understanding of the topics to focus on.

Objectives Section

The objectives section of the WAEC GCE Chemistry exam tests your knowledge and understanding of various concepts. It consists of multiple-choice questions that require you to select the correct answer from the options provided. Here are some key points to keep in mind for this section:

chemistry essay for waec 2023

1. Familiarize Yourself with Past Questions

To excel in the objectives section, it is essential to familiarize yourself with past questions. These questions often follow a similar pattern, allowing you to identify recurring topics and concepts. By practicing with past questions, you can develop a deeper understanding of the exam format and improve your speed and accuracy in answering.

2. Understand the Marking Scheme

Understanding the marking scheme is crucial for maximizing your score in the objectives section. Each question carries equal marks, and there is no negative marking for incorrect answers. Therefore, it is advisable to attempt all questions, even if you are unsure of the correct answer. Eliminate options that you know are incorrect and make an educated guess if necessary.

3. Review Key Concepts and Formulas

The objectives section covers a wide range of topics, including atomic structure, chemical reactions, organic chemistry, and more. Reviewing key concepts and formulas related to these topics is essential for answering questions accurately. Create concise notes or flashcards to help you memorize important information and revise regularly to reinforce your understanding.

4. Practice Time Management

Time management is crucial during the exam. The objectives section is time-sensitive, and you need to allocate enough time to answer all the questions. Practice solving past papers within the allotted time frame to improve your speed and efficiency. Additionally, learn to prioritize questions based on your strengths and weaknesses to maximize your score.

Essay Section

The essay section of the WAEC GCE Chemistry exam tests your ability to express your understanding of the subject matter in a coherent and structured manner. Here are some tips to help you excel in the essay section:

1. Understand the Question

Before you start writing your essay, take the time to carefully read and understand the question. Identify the key points and concepts the question is asking you to address. This will help you structure your essay effectively and ensure that you stay on topic throughout.

2. Plan Your Essay

Planning your essay is essential for organizing your thoughts and presenting a well-structured argument. Create an outline that includes an introduction, body paragraphs, and a conclusion. Map out the main points you want to discuss in each section, ensuring a logical flow of ideas.

3. Provide Relevant Examples

To support your arguments and demonstrate a deep understanding of the subject matter, provide relevant examples in your essay. These examples can be drawn from real-life situations, experiments, or case studies. Use specific details and data to strengthen your points and make your essay more persuasive.

4. Use Proper Scientific Terminology

The essay section of the WAEC GCE Chemistry exam requires you to use proper scientific terminology to communicate your ideas effectively. Make sure to use the appropriate terms and definitions related to the topic you are discussing. Avoid using vague or ambiguous language that may confuse the examiner.

Additional Tips for Success

Here are some additional tips to help you succeed in the WAEC GCE Chemistry exam:

  • Practice Regularly : Consistent practice is key to mastering the concepts and improving your problem-solving skills. Dedicate regular study sessions to revise the topics and solve practice questions.
  • Seek Clarification : If you come across any concepts or questions that you find difficult to understand, don’t hesitate to seek clarification from your teacher or classmates. Understanding the fundamentals will help you tackle more complex problems.
  • Manage Your Time : Develop a study schedule that allows you to cover all the necessary topics before the exam. Allocate sufficient time to practice past questions and identify areas where you need to improve.
  • Stay Calm and Confident : On the day of the exam, stay calm and confident in your preparation. Trust in your abilities and approach each question with a clear mind. Avoid rushing and carefully read each question before answering.

Preparing for the WAEC GCE Chemistry exam requires diligent study and practice. By familiarizing yourself with past questions, understanding the marking scheme, reviewing key concepts, and practicing time management, you can excel in both the objectives and essay sections. Remember to plan your essay effectively, provide relevant examples, and use proper scientific terminology. With consistent effort and a strategic approach, you can achieve excellent results in the 2023 WAEC GCE Chemistry exam.

Remember, success in the exam is not just about memorizing answers but also demonstrating a deep understanding of the subject matter. Use this comprehensive guide as a roadmap to guide your preparation and ace the WAEC GCE Chemistry exam. Best of luck!

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chemistry essay for waec 2023

(ii) Volume: The amount of space occupied by a gas is its volume. This can be measured in liters or cubic meters.

(1aii) The SI unit for pressure is Pascal (Pa).

(1b) The formation of a sodium ion from a sodium atom is an example of oxidation because the sodium atom loses an electron, resulting in an increase in its oxidation state.

(1c) Chlorine(I) oxide (Cl₂O) is a molecular compound held together by relatively weak forces such as Van der Waals forces or London dispersion forces. These forces are weaker compared to the strong covalent or ionic bonds found in many other compounds. The weaker intermolecular forces result in a lower melting point for chlorine(I) oxide.

(1d) (i) Ensure that both the copper(II) oxide and the dilute trioxonitrate(V) acid used in the reaction are of high purity to avoid impurities in the final product.

(ii) Ensure that the reaction is carried out under controlled conditions (e.g., temperature, pressure) to optimize the yield and purity of copper (II) trioxonitrate (V).

(1ei) – At the cathode (negative electrode): Copper ions (Cu²⁺) in the copper(II) tetraoxosulphate(VI) solution gain electrons and are reduced to solid copper (Cu).

– At the anode (positive electrode): Copper atoms (Cu) from the copper electrode lose electrons and oxidize into copper ions (Cu²⁺), entering the solution.

(1eii) oxygen gas will be evolved at the anode.

(1f) Van der Waals forces between chlorine molecules are stronger than those between fluorine molecules because chlorine atoms have more electrons, leading to a larger electron cloud. This larger electron cloud results in stronger temporary dipoles and thus stronger Van der Waals forces.

(1g) A reversible reaction is a chemical reaction that can proceed in both the forward and reverse directions. It means that the reactants can form products, and the products can also react to form the original reactants.

(1h) In chemistry, a postulate refers to a fundamental assumption or hypothesis that forms the basis for a theory or model. Postulates are statements accepted without direct proof but are used to derive and explain other principles or observations. They serve as starting points for building theoretical frameworks that help understand and predict chemical behavior.

(1i) An atom of sodium has 6.02×10²³ molecules equivalent to 1 mole

No. of moles = mass/molar mass Mass= no. of moles × molar mass = 1 × 23 Mass = 23g

(1hi) Graham’s law states that the rate of effusion or diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass.

chemistry essay for waec 2023

(4ai) Air is a mixture of gases, primarily composed of nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and trace amounts of other gases.

(4aii) Nitrogen

(4aiii) A noble gas is an element from Group 18 of the periodic table, characterized by its stable and inert nature.

(4aiv) (i) They are chemically inert (ii) They have a full outer electron shell (iii ) They exist as colorless, odorless gases at room temperature.

(4bi) (PICK ANY TWO) (i) Calcium chloride (ii) Sodium sulfate (iii) Potassium hydroxide (iv) Anhydrous calcium sulfate

(4bii) N2 + 3H2 —-> 2NH3

(4biii) It is often done through upward displacement of air or downward delivery into a container.

(4biv) Differences in the method of collection of gases depend on factors such as the gas’s density, solubility, and reactivity with atmospheric components.

(4ei) -Haematite undergoes reduction -Coke acts as a reducing agent and provides heat. -Limestone undergoes decomposition to form calcium oxide.

(4eii) Cast iron is brittle and contains a higher percentage of carbon compared to wrought iron, which is malleable and has a lower carbon content.

(4eiii) Conditions favoring the conversion of sulfur (IV) oxide to sulfur (VI) oxide include low temperature, high pressure, and the presence of a catalyst.

(4di) Both diamond and graphite have high melting points due to the strong covalent bonds between carbon atoms in their structures. In diamond, each carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds in a tetrahedral structure, while in graphite, carbon atoms are arranged in layers held together by weak van der Waals forces. •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••

(5a) Soap is manufactured through a process called saponification. In this process, pellets of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and vegetable oil are used as the main ingredients. First, the vegetable oil is heated, and then the heated vegetable oil is mixed with sodium hydroxide pellets. This mixture is stirred continuously until a thick, creamy consistency is achieved. This mixture is then left to cool and solidify into soap bars. The sodium hydroxide reacts with the fatty acids present in the vegetable oil, resulting in the formation of soap molecules.

(5bi) The industrial preparation of oxygen from air involves a process called fractional distillation. Air is first compressed and cooled, causing it to liquefy. This liquefied air is then subjected to fractional distillation, a process that separates the different components of air based on their boiling points. Oxygen, which has a lower boiling point than nitrogen, is separated and collected as a pure gas.

(5bii) (i) oxygen: Oxygen supports combustion and is necessary for a flame to burn. (ii) Hydrogen: hydrogen is highly flammable and can readily ignite.

(5ci) (i) Calcium hydroxide: It helps to neutralize any acidic components and improve the overall quality of the water. (ii) Calcium: is an essential nutrient for human health and is important for the development and maintenance of strong bones and teeth.

(5cii) (i) Natural sources (ii) Fossil fuel extraction and combustion

(5ciii) When sulfur reacts with iron, iron sulfide (FeS) is formed. This reaction can be represented by the equation: Fe + S -> FeS

(5di) The term hardness of water refers to the concentrationof dissolved minerals, particularly calcium and magnesium ions. Hard water can cause build-up and scaling in pipes and appliances, reduce the effectiveness of soaps and detergents, and can also affect the taste and odor of water.

(5dii) 2H2SO4 + 2NaCl → 2HCl + Na2SO4

chemistry essay for waec 2023

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Home » WAEC GCE Chemistry Answers 2023 Essay/OBJ Questions is Out

2023 WAEC GCE Chemistry Questions & Answers for Essay and Objective Released.

The Waec GCE chemistry answers 2023 essay and objective questions for the West African Examination Council (WAEC) Chemistry SSCE exam paper scheduled to be written on Tuesday, 12th December, 2023 can now be studied here.

The 2023 Chemistry Essay answer paper will start at 9:30 am and will last for 2hrs while the Objective exam will commence at 11:30 pm and will last for 1hr.

In this post, we will be posting the West African Senior School Certificate Examinations (WASSCE) Chemistry questions for candidates that will participate in the examination from past questions.

waec chemistry questions 2020

Continue reading below.

WAEC GCE Chemistry Answers 2023.

PAPER 2 [Essay] Answer any FOUR questions. Write your answers on the answer booklet provided.

1. (a) (i) What is the common name given to the group VII elements? (ii) Name the hydrides of the first two elements in group VII. (iii) State three chemical properties of group VII elements.

(b) Copy and complete the following table

(c) (i) Define each of the following processes: nuclear fission; nuclear fusion.                                                                     (ii) Give one use of each process in 1(c)(i)

(d) (i) List three types of radiation that are produced during radioactivity. (ii) Arrange the radiations listed in 1(d)(i) in order of increasing: penetrating power; ionizing power.

ANS: (a) (i) Halogens         (ii)  Hydrogen fluoride; Hydrogen chloride      (iii) high electron affinity/strong oxidizing agents/electron acceptor – highly electronegative; – react with hydrogen to form acid; – form salts with metals; – react with alkalis to form salts; – react with water to form acids;  – displacement of lower halogens from their acids/salts; – react with hydrocarbon to form alkyl halides. (b)

(c)(i) I. Nuclear fission – splitting of a heavy nucleus into two smaller nuclei of similar mass with the release of a large amount of energy and radiation. II. Nuclear fusion – a combination of smaller nuclei to form a large nucleus with the release of large amounts of energy and radiation. (ii) I. Used to generate electricity/nuclear bomb/production of new elements/production of radioisotopes. II. Used to produce nuclear weapons/atomic bombs/production of new elements/production radioisotopes.                                                                                                             (d) (i)  alpha, beta, gamma OR α ,    β, (ii)  I.    α   <    β    <  increasing penetrating power II.   <β     <   α increasing ionizing power.

2. (a) (i) What is the structure of the atom as proposed by Rutherford? (ii) Distinguish between the atomic number and the mass number of an element. (iii) Explain briefly why the relative atomic mass of chlorine is not a whole number.

(b) (i) What is meant by first ionization energy? (ii) List three properties of electrovalent compounds (iii) Consider the following pairs of elements: 9F and 17CL; 12Mg and 20Ca. Explain briefly why the elements in each pair have similar chemical properties.

(c) Explain briefly the following terms using an appropriate example in each case (i) homologous series; (ii) heterolytic fission.

(d) State the indicator(s) which could be used to determine the end-point of the following titrations: (i) dilute hydrochloric acid against sodium hydroxide solution; (ii) dilute hydrochloric acid against ammonium hydroxide solution; (iii) ethanoic acid against sodium hydroxide solution.

(e) A solid chloride E which sublimed on heating reacted with an alkali F to give a choking gas G. G turned moist red litmus paper blue.  Identify E, F and G.

ANS:  (a) (i) The atom has a small/ tiny positively charged centre /nucleus with electrons surrounding the space around the centre.   (ii) Atomic number of an element is the number of protons/electrons in an atom of the element while the mass number is the sum of the protons and neutrons in the atom of the element. (iii) Chlorine atom is made up of a mixture of isotopes and the relative atomic mass of chlorine is the average of its isotopic masses.

(b) (i) Is the (minimum) energy required to remove one mole of an electron from one mole of gaseous atom (to form one mole gaseous charged ion (ii) High melting /boiling point; Ability to conduct electricity in the molten state or in solution; Solid at room temperature; Soluble in water or polar solvents /insoluble in non-polar solvents. (iii) Atoms of the elements in each pair have the same number of electrons in their outer-most shell therefore similar chemical properties.

(c) (i) Is a family of organic compounds: – where successive members differ by –CH2 of the molar mass of 14; – with similar chemical properties; – which conform to the same general formula; – which show a gradation of physical properties; – which have the same general method of preparation. e.g  alkanes, alkenes , alkanols. (ii) Is a process in which a (covalent) bond is broken in such a way that the electron pair is completely transferred to one of the atoms (resulting in the formation of ions) H ÷ CI     →      H+ + Cl-/ HCl ® H+ + Cl- (d)(i) Methyl orange/ methyl red/ phenolphthalein; (ii) Methyl orange/ methyl red; (iii) Phenolphthalein. (e) E   –   NH4Cl F  –  NaOH, KOH, or Ca (OH)2,  Li OH, CsOH, Ba(oH)2, Mg(OH)2 G  –   NH3.

3. (a) (i) Define saturated solution.  (ii) The solubility of KN03 at 20°C was 3.00 mol dm-3 If 67.0g of KN03 was added to 250cm3 of water and stirred at 20°C, determine whether the solution formed was saturated or not at that temperature.

(b) (i) Distinguish between the dative bond and covalent bond.  (ii) Explain why sugar and common salt do not conduct electricity in the solid state.  (iii) State the type of intermolecular forces present in I. hydrogen fluoride; II. argon.  (iv) Consider the compounds with the following structures:  S – H —-N and 0 – H —–N  In which of the compounds is the hydrogen bond stronger? Give a reason for your answer.

(c) (i) State Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressure. (ii) If 200cm3 of carbon(IV) oxide were collected over water at 18°C and 700 mmHg, determine the volume of the dry gas at s.t.p.[ standard vapour pressure of water at 18°C = 15 mmHg] 

ANS: (a) (i) Is a solution that contains the maximum amount of solute it can dissolve at a given temperature (in the presence of undissolved solute). (ii) Solubility of KN03 in in g dm-3 = 3.00 x 101 = 303  .. 1000cm3 of saturated solution = 303g  250cm3 of the solution = 303 x 250                                                  1000                                              = 75.8 g Since the quantity of KN03 added (67.0) to 250 cnr’ of water is less than the maximum amount required to form a saturated solution, then the solution is unsaturated.

(b)(i) In a dative bond, only one of the participating atoms/ species donated electrons to be shared by both atoms while in a covalent bond both participating atoms/ species contribute equally to the electrons being shared.  (ii) Sugar is covalent while common salt (NaCl) is electrovalent/ ionic. Electrical conductivity (in compounds) depends on the presence of mobile ions. (iii) The intermolecular forces present in hydrogen fluoride and argon were hydrogen bond and van der Waal’s forces respectively.  (iv) 0 – H —- N has a stronger hydrogen bond because oxygen is more electronegative and smaller in size than sulphur. 

(c)(i) the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases that do not react chemically is equal to the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. (ii) pressure of the dry gas (P 1) = 700 – 15 = 685 mmHg  VI = 200cm 3 , TI = 18°C = 273 + 18 = 291K, P2 = 760 mmHg,  T2 = 273  P1V1  =  P2V2     T1         T2 V2 =  P1V1T 2   =                  P2T1

= 685 x 200 x 273     760 x 291

= 169.1cm 3

4. (a) (i) Define nuclear fission (ii) A certain natural decay series starts with and ends with. Each step involves the loss of an alpha or a beta particle. Using the given information,  deduce how many alpha and beta particles were emitted. (b) Consider the equilibrium reaction represented by the following equation: A2(g)  +  3B2(g)    2AB3(g);    H   =  +  kJmol-1 Explain briefly the effect of each of the following changes on the equilibrium composition; (i)  increase in the concentration of B; (ii) decrease in pressure of the system; (iii) addition of catalyst. (c) The lattice energies of three sodium halides are as follows:

Explain briefly the trend.

(d) State the property exhibited by nitrogen (IV) oxide in each of the following reactions: (i) 4Cu  +  2NO2        4CuO + N2; (ii) H2O+ 2NO2        HNO3   + HNO2

(e) Iron is manufactured in a blast furnace using iron ore (Fe2O3), coke and limestone. Write the equation for the reaction(s) at the: (i) top of the furnace; (ii) middle of the furnace; (iii) bottom of the furnace. (f) (i) Name two products of destructive distillation of coal. (ii) Give one use of each product in 3(f)(i).

5. Copy and complete the following table:

(i) Mention  one  compound that makes water I. temporarily hard; II. permanently hard. (ii) State  one  method that could be used to remove I. only temporary hardness; II. permanent hardness. (iii) Write an equation to show the removal of: I. temporary hardness; II. permanent hardness. (c) (i) List  three  sources of water pollution. (ii) Mention  two  ways by which water pollution can be controlled. (d) state the function of  each  of the following substances in the purification of water for town supply: I. sodium aluminate (III) (NaAIO2); II. lime (calcium hydroxide); III. calculated mount of iodine; IV. sand bed.

6. (a) (i) What is meant by atomicity? (ii) Mention one element in each case which is I. monatomic, II. diatomic, III. tetratomic. (iii) Write the orbital electron configuration of I. 20Ca, II. 9F. a. In which group does each of the elements belong? b. How many unpaired electrons are present in 9F? c. How many electrons are present in 20Ca2+?

(b) (i) Write a balanced equation for the thermal decomposition of KCƖO3. (ii) Mention the catalyst that could be used to increase the rate of reaction in 6(b)(i). (ii) If 5.0 g of KCƖO3 was decomposed by heat, determine the volume of oxygen produced at s.t.p. [Molar gas volume at s.t.p. = 22.4dm3, K = 39,  Cl = 35.5, O = 16]

(c) (i) Mention the products formed when each of the following substances is heated strongly: I. ZnCO3; II. CuSO4.5H2O. (ii) State the colour change observed when each of the residues in 1(d)(i) above is allowed to cool.

7. (a) Describe briefly how each of the following aqueous solutions could be identified in the laboratory: (i) Ammonium trioxocarbonate (IV); (ii)Ammonium chloride. (b) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point and give reasons for your answer: CS2,  NaF and CO2. (c) List two gases each that are: (i) acidic; (ii) highly soluble in water; (iii) oxidized by acidified KMnO4(aq). (d) In a tabular form, compare the elements silicon and sulphur under the following properties: (i) metallic character; (ii) physical state; (iii) conduction of electricity. (e) A cuboid piece of sodium metal measures 3 cm x 4 cm x 10 cm. If the density of sodium is 0.971 g cm-3, calculate the number of atoms in the sodium metal. [ Na = 23; Avogadro constant = 6.02 x 1023 mol_1 ]

waec chemistry answer

8. (a)  (i) Define standard electrode potential. (ii) State two factors that affect the value of standard electrode potential. (iii) Give two uses of the values of standard electrode potential. (iv) Draw and label a diagram for an electrochemical cell made up of                Cu2+/Cu;   = + 0.34                 Zn2+/Zn;   = – 0.76 (v) Calculate the e.m.f of the cell in 8(a)(iv) above (b) (i)  In terms of electron transfer, define I. oxidation; II. oxidizing agent. (ii) Balance the following redox reaction: MnO4-    +  I- H+   I2Mn2+

(c) Classify each of the following oxides as basic, amphoteric, acidic or neutral: (i) Carbon (II) oxide; (ii) Sulphur(IV) oxide; (iii) Aluminium oxide; (iv) Lithium oxide.

(d) What is hydrogen bonding?

WAEC GCE Chem Objective Questions 2023.

PAPER 1 [Essay] Answer All questions in this section. Write your answers on the answer sheet provided.

1. Two immiscible liquids with different boiling points can be separated by _____ A. The use of separating funnel B. Evaporation C. Distillation D. Decantation.

2. A mixture of CaCl2 and CaCO3 in water can be separated by  ______ A. Evaporation B. Sublimation C. Distillation D. Decantation.

3. What is responsible for metallic bonding? A. sharing of electrons between the metal atoms B. attraction between the atomic nuclei and the cloud of electrons C. Transfer of electrons from one atom to another D. attraction between positive and negative ions.

4. 25cm3 of 1.5M solution of NaCl are added to 50cm3 of 3M NaCl. The molar concentration of the resulting solution is ________ A. 2.5M       B. 3M             C. 2.25M     D. 4.5M

5. A solution of salt formed from HCl and NH3 solutions is _____ A. Acidic     B. Basic          C. complex          D. Neutral

6. Which of the following elements will burn in excess oxygen to form a product that is neutral to litmus?                                                                              A. carbon          B. Hydrogen          C. Sulphur        D. Sodium

7. A current was passed for 10 mins and 0.2mole of Cu was deposited. How many grammes of Ag will it deposit? (Cu = 64, Ag = 108) A. 43.2g       B. 21.6g         C. 10.8g    D. 5.4g

8. Pollution of underground water by metal ions is very likely in a soil that has high  ________ A. Acidity       B. Alkalinity        C. Chloride content     D. Nitrate content

9. Producer gas is a gas with low caloric value because it contains more ____ A. CO2 than O2      B. N2 than CO     C. CO2 than N2     D. N2 than CO2

10. Silver chloride turns grey when exposed to sunlight because _____ A. The silver ion is reduced to silver B. The silver ion is oxidized to silver C. Silver is a transition metal D. The silver chloride forms complexes in the sun.

11. Which of these compounds exhibits resonance? A. Benzene   B. Ethanol    C. Propene    D. Butyne

15. Hydrolysis of CH3COOCH2CH3 in dilute HCl produces ______ A. CH3COOH + CH3CH3 B. CH3CH2OH + CH3COCl C. CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH D. CH3COOH + CH3CH3

16. Calculate the volume of CO2 measured at s.t.p produced on heating 250g of potassium hydrogen trioxocarbonate (IV) strongly.  (K = 39, H = 1, C = 12, O = 16)  A. 28dm3   B. 2.8dm3  C.5.6dm3  D. 11.2dm3

17. The boiling points of water, ethanol, methylbenzene and butan-2-ol are 373.0K, 351.3K, 383.6K and 372.5K respectively. Which liquid has the highest vapour pressure at 323.0K? A. Water      B. Methylbenzene       C. Ethanol       D. Butan-2-ol

18. The conclusion from Rutherford’s alpha scattering experiment is that ______ A. Atoms are mostly empty space with a small nucleus B. Emissions from radioactive substances consist of three main components C. There is a nuclear pull on orbital electrons D. Electrons are deflected by both magnetic and electric fields.

19. Elements P, Q and R have atomic numbers 9, 16 and 20 respectively. Which of them would gain electron(s) during ionic bonding                              A. Q and R B. P and R C. P and Q D. P, Q and R.

20. Which of the following has the lowest PH? A. 5cm3 of M/10 HCl B. 10cm3 of M/10 HCl C. 20cm3 of M/8 HCl D. 15cm3 of M/2 HCl

21. Which of the following is an acid salt? A. (NH4)2CO3     B. CHCOONa   C. KHSO4     D. MgSO4.7H2O

22. Cr2O2-7 + 14H+  + 6I → 2Cr3+  + 3I2  + 7H2O. The change in the oxidation number of oxygen in the equation above is _______ A. 0       B. 1          C. 2         D. 7

23. During electrolysis of CuSO4 solution using platinum electrodes, which of the following occurs ______ A. Acidity increases at the cathode B. Oxygen is liberated at the cathode C. PH decreases at the cathode D. PH of solution increases.

24. Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace quantities? A. Ca2+    B. Pb2+    C. Mg2+     D. Fe2+

25. The solubility of a salt of molar mass 100g at 20oC is 0.34mol/dm3. If 3.4g of that salt dissolved completely 250cm3 of water at that temperature, the resulting solution is ________ A. A suspension B. Saturated C. Unsaturated D. Supersaturated

26. Catalyst is important in in chemical industry in that ______ A. it affects the purity of the products B. it affects the quantity of the products C. it increases the time for reaching equilibrium D. Bond breaking is slowed down.

27. An alkanioc acid has a molecular mass of 88. Name the acid. (C = 12, O =16, H = 1) A. Propanioc acid B. Botanioc acid C. Pentanioc acid D. But-2-ionic acid

28. Ethyne undergoes the following reactions EXCEPT A. Polymerization   B. Addition  C. Combustion    D. Etherification

Keep following, more questions and answers will be added soon.

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WAEC Chemistry Objective And Theory Answers 2023/2024

WAEC Chemistry Questions and Answers

Waec Chemistry Questions and Answers for free to all Weac candidates In Ghana, Liberia, Nigeria, Sierra Leone, and The Gambia. On this page, all the Waec Chemistry questions and answers for 2023 and the most common questions and answers are released here.

Waec Candidates that applied for the West African Examination Council (WAEC) SSCE Examination will write their Waec Chemistry For Science students. All details you need for you to be successful and pass this 2023 Waec Exam will also be given and make sure you read all through.

2023 Waec Chemistry Exam Papers

2023 Waec Chemistry Exam Papers Are

  • Waec Chemistry Essay Questions
  • Waec Chemistry Objectives Questions,

You are writing the 2 papers in only one day. In this post, the previous Year’s Waec questions and answers for Chemistry are released and the 2023 Waec Chemistry Exam Questions will also be released for those participating in the 2023 Waec examination.

2023 Waec Chemistry Questions and Answers Objective (paper 1)

The  2023 Waec Chemistry questions and answers loading!  2023 Chemistry objective answers Loading!! 2023 Waec Chemistry Theory Answers Loading!!! Kindly bookmark the website for the answers that will be released. or better still reload the site to check if the answers for the 2023 Waec Chemistry questions and answers have dropped.

Previous Year WAEC Chemistry OBJ ANSWERS

CHEM-OBJ 1caacabcdbc 11babaadbdca 21bccaabcdcb 31abcbcccbbc 41abdbbbaabb Chem-Theory-Answers

==================================

2023 Waec Chemistry Questions and Answers THEORY (paper 2)

The  2023 Waec Chemistry Theory questions and answers are loading!  2023 Chemistry Essay answers Loading!! 2023 Waec Chemistry Theory Answers Loading!!! Kindly bookmark the website for the answers that will be released. or better still reload the site to check if the answers for the 2023 Waec Chemistry questions and answers have dropped.

3d) VIEW IMAGE HERE – CLICK

3ai) structural isomerism is the existence of two or more compounds ( known as isomers) with the same molecular formula but different molecular structures

3ai) i) tertiary alkanol ii) secondary alkanol iii) primary alkanol

3bi) i) 2[CH3 CH2 COOH ] 2K(s)—-> ii) [CH3 CH2 COO ] K + H2 i) 2[CH3 CH2 COOH ] +2 K(s) ——> 2[ CH3 CH2 COO ] K + H2

ii) CH3 CH2 COOH + C4 H9OH HEAT—->CH3 CH2 COO C4 H9 + H20 H2SO4

iii)CH3 CH2 CH2 CH20H + H^+ KMnO4——> CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 – 0H EXCESS

3bii) i) potassium ethanoate,hydrogen ii) butyl propanoate and water iii) enthanal

3c) The percentage composition of the hydrocarbon = 100 H + C = 100 14.3 + C =100 C= 100 – 14.3 C= 85.7% ================

1a) nucleons is the collective name for two important sub-atomic particles:neutrons and protons

1b) Graham’s law of diffusion states that at a constant temperature and presure,the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of it density

1c) because when aluminum is exposed to moist air,a thin continuous coating of aluminum oxide is formed, which prevents futher attack of the aluminium by atmospheric oxygen and water or steam under normal conditions

1d) i) electron – affinity ii) electron – negativity iii) ionization – energy

1e) i) the molecule of real gases occupies space and there are forces of the attraction between them ii) real gases do liquefy when their temperature droops.

1f) i)used in seperation of different component of crude oil. ii)it is used for separating acetonic from water iii) it is used for obtaining different gases from air for industrial use.

1g) i)concentration of ions in electrolyte ii)the nature of the electrode iii)the position of ions in the electrochemical series

1h) i)substitution reaction ii)addition reaction

1i) i)carbon dioxide ii)water vapour iii) carbon monoxide

1j) i)centrifugation ii)sieving iii)evaporation to dryness ==================================

2a) i) isotopy ii) they have the same number of proton (atomic number) but different mass number iii) oxygen,carbon iv)1s^2,2s^2,2p^6,3s^2,3p^5

2bi) PHYSICAL PROPERTIES METAL i) high melting and boiling point ii) they are good conductor of heat and electricity

NON-MATEL i)they have lower melting and boiling point ii)they are poor conductors of heat and electricity.

CHEMICAL PROPERTIES METAL i) they form basic and ampheric oxides ii)the react by electron lose or donation of electron NON-METAL i)the form acidic oxides ii)the react by sharing and accepting electrons

2bii) i) Al2 O3(Aluminum oxide) ii) sodium hydride (NaH) iii)zinc trioxocarbonate(iv)ZnCo3 iv)silicon tetrachloride (SiCl4)

2ci) i) variable oxidation states ii) complex ion formation iii) they possess strong metallic bonding

2cii) 1s^2,2s^2, 2p^6, 3s^2, 3p^6, 3d^10, 4s^2

2ciii) Zinc is not considered as a typical transition element bacause it has only one oxidation state of +2, it metallic ion are not coloured and it is not used as a catalyst.

2d) Na2Co3 + MgCl2 —->2NaCl + MgCo3 1mole 1mole 2mole 1mole molar mass of Na2 Co3 = 2 * 23 + 12 * 1 + 16 * 3 = 46+12+48 = 106g ==================================

5ai) Na2S2O3 ===>2 + 2x + 6 = 0 2x = 6 – 2 = 4 X = 4/2 X = 2 The oxidation number of sulphur is 2

5aii) Rhombic&monoclinic

5aiii) – Both are tetravalent – both are allotrope of carbon

5bi) CO2&Chloroflorocarbon

5bii) There is increase in sun radiation reaching the earths surface ie Global warming

5biii) ThunderStorm

5iv) I2KNo3. ——–>2KNO3 + O2 2AgNo3 ———>. 2Ag + 2No

5ci) Calcium chloride in a solution can give rise to crystal using filtration and evaporation to dryness. The sol is filtered into filtrate and residue b4 evaporation to dryness takes place.

5cii) – Because of presence of hydrogen bonding in NH3 – Because Iodine as higher molecular mass than chlorine

5di) Mol of Nacl = Mass / MM = 5.85/ 58.01 = 0.1mol From the equation 2mol of Nacl gives 2mol of HCL, 0.1mol of Nacl gives 0.1mol of Hcl Vol of Hcl = 0.1 x 22.4 = 2.24mol/dm^3 ================

Practice Waec Chemistry Questions On Objective

If you can be able to access these questions with the appropriate answers without using textbooks or materials you are 80% ready for the 2023 Chemistry Exam. Kindly submit the answer in the comment section below and if you are interested in the 2023 Waec Chemistry answers kindly show interest.

The components of universal indicator solution can best be separated by

A. Chromatography B. Filtration C. Evaporation D. Crystallization E. Fractional distillation

The number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in one acid indicates its

A. Basicity B. Acidity C. Alkalinity D. Reactivity E. PH value

Catalytic hydrogenation of alkenes produces compounds with the general formula

A. CnH2n+1 OH B. CnH2n+1 C. CnH2n+2 D. CnH2n-2 E. Cx(H2O)y

A measure of the degree of disorder in a chemical system is known as the

A. Enthalpy B. Free energy C. Activation energy D. Entrophy E. Equilibrium

Which of the following occurs when an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide is electrolysed using graphite electrodes?

A. Sodium metal is produced at the anode B. Sodium amalgam is formed at the cathode C. Oxygen gas is produced at the anode D. The grahite anode dissolves E. The resulting solution becomes acidic

If the volume of a given mass of gas at 0oC is 27.3cm3, what will be the volume of the gas at 10oC, pressure remaining constant?

A. 2.73cm3 B. 28.3cm3 C. 37.3cm3 D. 273cm3 E. 283cm3

Glucose can be obtained from starch by

A. Hydrogenation B. Dissoiation C. Hydrolysis D. Dialysis E. Dehydration

How many faradays of electricity are required to liberate 9g aluminium? (AI = 27)

A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 1.0 D. 2.7 E. 3.0

When water is dropped on calcium carbide, the gaseous product is an

A. Alkane B. Alkene C. Alkyne D. Alkanol E. Alkanal

Practice Waec Chemistry Questions On Theory

a) Define each of the following terms and indicate one use of each: (i) Nuclear fission; (ii) Nuclear fusion. (b) Alpha particle emission by 29325� proceduces an element A. Beta particle emission by the particle A produces another element B. Element B also undergoes alpha particle emission to produce 22789��. Write balanced equations to represent the above statement. (c) The models below represent the filling of orbitals in an atom.

State which rule(s) is/are violated or obeyed by each model. (d) Explain why the boiling point of H2S with relative molecular mass of 34 is lower than that of H2O with relative molecular mass of 18.

(e) HCI is passed into each of the following solvents: (i) water; (ii) methylbenzene. I. State the effect of each solution on blue litmus paper II. Compare the electrical conductivities of the two solutions.

(f) Zinc dust is added to copper (II) tetraoxosulphate (VI) solution. State; (i) what is observed; (ii) the type of reaction that occurs.

Question 2 :

(a)(i) State two differences betwecii the properties of solids and gases (ii) What process does each of X, Y and Z represent in the changes shown below?

Waec Chemistry Question and Answers

Waec Chemistry Question and Answers

(b)(i) State Charles’ Law (ii) Draw a sketch to graphically illustrate Charles’ Law.

(d)(i) State two assumptions X of the kinetic theory. (ii) Consider the reaction represented by the Solid or Liquid following equation: H2(�) + Cl2(�) → 2HCI(�) Use the kinetic theory to explain how the rate of formation of HCI(�) would be affected by I. increase in temperature; II. decrease in pressure.

(e) Given different examples, mention one metal in each case that produces hydrogen on reacting with (i) dilute mineral acid; (ii) cold water; (iii) steam; (iv) hot, concentrated alkali.

The  2023 Waec Chemistry Theory and objective questions and answers are loading!  2023 Chemistry Essay answers Loading!! 2023 Waec Chemistry objective Answers Loading!!! Kindly bookmark the website for the answers that will be released. or better still reload the site to check if the answers for the 2023 Waec Chemistry questions and answers have dropped.

Before you leave this page kindly make sure you understand and know how WASSCE grades your WAEC Subject. The reason why we are doing this, is not to frighten or scare you but to put you in check and see reasons why you need to be serious with your Government study for the 2023 Government Exam

Waec Grading System For all Waec Candidates

Do you know that the West African Examination Council (WAEC) Board has published the Waec grading system of results? Kindly check below to see the meaning of the  Waec Grading Result .

The table below shows candidates’ positioning of the Waec grading of results ranging from A1, B2, B3, C4, C5, C6, D7, E8, F9 are the complete list of Waec Grading Result. All Waec candidates must fall into one of the Waec Grading Systems.

WAEC Gradi n g Percentage Scores

  • A1 Excellent 75% – 100%
  • B2 Very good 70% – 74%
  • B3 Good 65%  –  69%
  • C4 Credit 60% – 64%
  • C5 Credit 55% – 59%
  • C6 Credit 50% – 54%
  • D7 Pass 45% – 49%
  • E8 Pass 40% – 45%
  • F9 Failure 0% – 44%

If you have been wondering where to get the best and latest Waec news updates and guide about Waec 2023, how to pass Waec, a timetable for 2022/2023 Waec, free online and hardcopy Waec past questions, and hot topics to read for Waec, latest news updates and Waec CBT practice platform, then  subscribe to the newsletter  or join our Forum

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WAEC GCE Chemistry Questions and Answers 2023/2024 (Essay and Objectives)

WAEC GCE Chemistry Questions and Answers 2023 .  Welcome to 2023 WAEC Chemistry Questions and Answers. You will find WAEC GCE Chemistry Objective Answers, WAEC Chemistry Essay 2023, WAEC GCE 2023 Chemistry, and the tips you need to pass your WAEC GCE Chemistry examination with ease.

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Table of Contents

WAEC GCE Chemistry Questions and Answers 2023 (Expo)

The 2023 WAEC GCE Chemistry expo will be posted here during the WAEC GCE Chemistry examination. Keep checking and reloading this page for the answers.

WAEC GCE 2023 Chemistry Answers Loading.. .

Today’s WAEC GCE Chemistry OBJ Answers:

———————————————————————————–

Note: The answers below are the 2020 Nov/Dec answers.

NOTE:  Pls Trace It From Your Objective. [If you see any options here pick it from your objectives]

1 Involves the loss and gain of electrons 2 Polymerisation 3 Global warming 4 3 5 Zinc ions 6 +1.56V 7 Ethene 8 NH3 9 Propanol 10 28 11 Hydrolysis 12 d-orbital 13 Lowering the activation energy 14 Closeness between reactant particles 15 Remaining the same with time 16 Reaction vessel Fels cool during the reaction 17 Faster 18 Solvent extraction 19 Saturated Solution 20 2.75mol/dm³ 21 Partially dissociates in aqueous solution 22 138g 23 HI 24 2.00cm³ 25 hydrogen chloride 26 strong electrovalent bond between ions 27 is not ductile 28 Electrons 29 C2H4 30 Aluminium 31 0.010mol/dm³ 32 PbCO3 33 Linear 34 HCL and HOCL 35 +1 36 Ionic bond 37 have relatively low ionization energy 38 sour to taste 39 I,III and IV only 40 chrometography 41 2.00 dm 42 mole of solvent in 1dm³ of solution 43 does not contain neutron 44 1s²2s²2p⁶ 45 Ammonium chloride 46 IV 47 I,II and IV only 48 Quantum numbers of Electrons 49 -273⁰C 50 Mass number

1-10: DDDADBBABA

11-20: CDABDCCDDC

21-30: ACDBDCCDAB

31-40: BCADABDBAC

More Answers loading…

WAEC GCE Chemistry Theory Answers:

(i) Sodium trioxonitrate (v) decahydrate

NaNO₃ . 10H₂O

(ii) Sodium Oxide –> Na₂O

(iii) Potassium tetraoxophospate (v) –> K₃PO₄

Products formed are:

Hydrogen gas (a+ cathode)

Chlorine gas (a+ anode)

it decrease down the group

As the atomic radius increases down the group the attraction of the positive nucleus of the electron outer most electron, thus the ionization energy decreases

Nitrogen and carbon (ii) oxide

it is used to heat furnace

it is a source of nitrogen for the manufacture of ammonia

Sodium hydrogen – used in qualitative analysis

– Purification of bauxite

Sodium trioxocarbonate (iv)

-Manufacture of glass

-As a water soften

2-amino propane

(2ai) Percentage C5H12 of mass m = 7.2g Volume of O2 = 20.0dm³ (i) from the general combustion equation CxHy(g) + (x+y/4)O2 –> XCO2 + y/2H2O C5H12(l) + 802(g) –> 5CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)

(2aii) 1 mole of C5H12(72g) = 5 moles of CO2 At stop 7.2gC5H12 = x volume of CO2 X = 7.2g×5×22.4dm³/72g X = 5×2.224 = 11.2dm³ of CO2

(2aiii) Volume of oxygen left after the reaction from the equation of reaction 1 mole of C5H12(72g) = 8(22.4)dm³ 7.2g = x X = 7.2×8×22.4/72 = 17.92dm³ Volume of O2 left after the reaction = 20.0dm³ – 17.92dm³ = 2.08dm³

(2b) When molecules collide with one another they possess kinetic energy. As most energetic molecules (those with greater kinetic energy) try to escape. Their escape may be facilitated by heat or by passing a wave of air over the container or by increasing the surface area of the container. As they try to do this, some molecules will loose energy on collision and fall back to the container; as such the average kinetic of the molecules of the liquid in the container reduces which results to cooling effect.

(2ci) Avogadro’s Law states that the total number of atoms/molecules of a gas (i.e. the amount of gaseous substance) is directly proportional to the volume occupied by the gas at constant temperature and pressure.

(2cii) N2(g) + 3H2—> 2NH3 Where 1 mole = 30cm³ of gas

At constant temperature, the volume of a fixed mass of gas. When the volume of a cylinder or a container is increased, the gases have more space to travel and collide hence the pressure is reduced but as the volume is decreased or compressed the gases have less space to travel therefore more pressure is built up.

No (3ai) ¹³R, ⁸Q ¹³R=1s²,2s²,2p⁶,3s²,3p¹ ⁸Q=1s²,2s²,2p⁴

(3aii) ¹³R=2,8,3 Valency of ¹³R is 3 ⁸Q= 2,6 Valency of ⁸Q=2

(3di) 2H² SO4(aq)+4NaOH(aq)—>2Na² SO4(aq)+4H²O(s)

(3dii) Sodium teraoxosulphate (iv) salt and water

(3diii) The resulting solution NaSO4 is basic and will have no effect on litmus paper

(3div) When heated to dryness it can be used as a dehydrating agent

Typing….

—————————————————————————————————————–

The questions below are strictly for practice.

1. Which of the following statements best explains the difference between a gas and a vapour?

(a) Unlike gases, vapours are liquids at room temperature

(b) Unlike gases, vapour can easily be condensed into liquids

(c) Unlike gases, vapour is readily converted into solids

(d) Vapours are generally denser than gases

2. Consider the following reaction equation: 2HCI + Ca(OH) 2 → CaCI 2 + H 2 O. what is the volume of 0.1 moldm -3 , HCI that would completely neutralize 25 cm 3 or 0.3 moldm -3 Ca(OH) 2 ?

(a) 150 cm 3

(b) 75 cm 3

(c) 30 cm 3

(d) 25 cm 3

 3. Cu and HNO 3 are not suitable for preparing hydrogen gas because of their

(a) Reactivity and oxidation respectively

(b) conductivity and corrosiveness respectively

(c) melting point and reduction respectively

(d) electronegativity and solubility respectively

4. Which of the following formulae cannot be an empirical formula?

(c) P 2 O 5

(d) N 2 O 4

5. One of the criteria for confirming the purity of benzene is to determine its

(a) Heat capacity

(b) boiling point

6. When chlorine is passed through a sample of water, the pH of the water sample would be (a) <7

(a) 1.20 x 10 23

(b) 2.41 x 10 23

(c) 3.62 x 10 23

(d) 4.82 x 10 23

8. The strength of metallic bonds depends on the

(a) charge density of the atoms

(b) ductility of the metal

(c) number of valence electrons

(d) total number of electrons in the atoms

9. When zinc is added to AgNO 3 solution, crystals of silver forms on the zinc surface. This indicates that zinc is

(a) oxidized

(b) reduced

(c) decomposed

(d) dissociated

(d) Cu 2 O 2

  • WAEC GCE Mathematics Questions and Answers
  • WAEC GCE Physics Questions and Answers

11. The change in the oxidation state of iron in the reaction represented by the equation below is 2FeCI 3 + H 2 S →2FeCI 2 + 2HCI + S

(a) +2 to +3

(b) +3 to +2

(c) 0 to +2

(d) +3 to 0

12. Which of the following methods can be used to separate blood cells from plasma?

(a) Centrifugation

(b) Filtration

(c) Chromatography

(d) Distillation

13. Which of the following statements about ionic radius is correct? ‘Ionic radius

(a) Increases as nuclear charge increases

(b) decreases as nuclear charge increases

(c) decreases as nuclear charges decreases.

(d) remains constant as nuclear charge increases

14. Analysis of a hydrocarbon shows that it contains 0.93 g of carbon per gram of the compound. The mole  ratio of carbon to hydrogen in the compound is [H=1.0, C=12.0]

15. The law of definite proportions states that

(a) pure samples of same compound contain the same elements combined in the same proportion by mass

(b) pure samples of substances are in the same proportion by mass

(c) chemical compounds are pure because they contain the same elements

(d) matter can neither be created nor destroyed

17. Atoms are electrically neutral because they

(a) don not conduct electricity

(b) contain equal number of protons and electrons

(c) are composed of neutrons and electrons

(d) cannot be attracted by electromagnetic field

18. Common salt (NaC1) is used for preserving foods. Which of the following properties could be used to determine its purity before use?

(a) Solubility in water

(b) melting point

(c) Relative density

(d) Crystalline nature

19. Which of the following electron configurations represents the transition element chromium ( 24 Cr)?

(a) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 4

(b) 1s 2 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 3d 6

(c) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 2s 2 3d 4 4s 1 (d) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 1 3d 5

20. The atomic number of an isotope of hydrogen is equal to its mass number because it

(a) has a totally filled valence shell

(b) has a high charge to mass ratio

(c) does not contain neutrons (d) exhibits isotopy

21. The total number of shared pair of electrons in the compound below is

22. The bonding pair of electrons in a hydrogen chloride molecule is pulled towards the chlorine atom because

(a) Chlorine has a larger atomic size

(b) chlorine has a large atomic mass

(c) chlorine is more electronegative

(d) there is no bonding orbitals within the hydrogen atom

23. The solubility of CO 2 in water can be accounted for by

(a) van der waal’s forces

(b) ionic attraction

(c) dipole attraction

(d) covalent bonding

24. Which of the following properties would not influence electrovalent bond information?

(a) Electronegativity

(b) Electron affinity

(c) Ionization potential

(d) Catalytic ability

25. Particles in a solid exhibit

(a) Vibrational motion only

(b) vibrational and translational motion

(c) vibrational and random motion

(d) random and translational motion

WAEC GCE Chemistry Essay 2023

The above questions are not exactly 2023 WAEC Chemistry questions and answers but likely WAEC Physics repeated questions and answers.

These questions are for practice. The 2023 WAEC GCE Chemistry expo will be posted on this page 30 minutes before the WAEC GCE Chemistry examination starts. Keep checking and refreshing this page for the answers.

If you have any questions about the WAEC GCE Chemistry questions and answers, kindly drop your questions in the comment box.

Last Updated on October 2, 2023 by Admin

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Free 2023 WAEC Chemistry Expo Questions (Complete Obj&Essay) Ditto/Runz

  • Thread starter Ackley8
  • Start date May 23, 2023
  • Fundamental Concepts: Familiarize yourself with the basic principles, laws, and theories of Chemistry. Understand topics such as atomic structure, chemical bonding, and the periodic table.
  • Organic Chemistry: Pay special attention to organic compounds, their nomenclature, properties, and reactions. Focus on topics like hydrocarbons, alcohols, carboxylic acids, and their derivatives.
  • Inorganic Chemistry: Study the properties and reactions of various inorganic compounds, including acids, bases, salts, and transition metals. Understand concepts related to stoichiometry, redox reactions, and equilibrium.
  • Physical Chemistry: Gain a strong foundation in physical chemistry by mastering topics such as thermodynamics, chemical kinetics, electrochemistry, and atomic structure.
  • Practicing Past Questions: Solve previous years' WAEC Chemistry questions to become familiar with the exam pattern and identify areas where you need more practice.
  • Objective (OBJ) Section: The OBJ section consists of multiple-choice questions. Each question carries equal marks, and there is no negative marking for incorrect answers. The total marks for the OBJ section may vary each year.
  • Theory Section: In the theory section, marks are allocated to specific questions. Each question is assigned a specific number of marks based on its complexity and depth of explanation required. It is crucial to answer the theory questions clearly and concisely, providing relevant explanations and examples where necessary.

Good  

Professional Marks

CHEMISTRY THEORY AND OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR 2021/2022 WAEC EXAM

CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

Chemistry Theory And Objective: Questions  & Answers For 2022/2023 WAEC Exam. Are you a student who wants to make a good grade in Chemistry? Here are the WAEC Chemistry questions and everything you need to know about 2021 WAEC Chemistry. This post provides provided for you with all you need to know in Chemistry Paper 1 (Objective) and Chemistry 2 (Essay).

Welcome to the Chemistry Theory and Objective: Questions & Answers for the 2022/2023 WAEC Exam. This comprehensive guide has been designed to assist students in their preparation for the upcoming WAEC Chemistry examination. It presents a collection of theory and objective questions along with their corresponding answers, covering the essential topics and concepts outlined in the WAEC syllabus. By studying and practicing these questions, you will gain a solid foundation in chemistry and improve your chances of achieving excellent results in the exam. So let’s delve into the world of chemistry and embark on a journey of learning and success.

The Question & Answers: CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

Furthermore, below are the WAEC Chemistry questions. Read them properly. In fact, they will make you ready to score high in your WAEC Chemistry exam.

The West Africa Examination Council (WAEC) is an examination body in Nigeria. It has the statutory power to conduct the Senior Secondary Certificate Examination in May/June and the General Certificate in Education in November/December.

THE OBJECTIVE OF POST: CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

Because people are asking about WAEC Chemistry and objective questions and answer 2022/2023. In fact, they are also asking for JAMB 2022 CHEMISTRY questions and answers pdf, The solutions are the objectives of this post. This post, therefore, takes care of those students who plan to do well in the WAEC exams this year.

The best way to read this post is to read it by clicking the highlighted topics for referencing. So check out these related topics that follow.

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CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

General tips and advice to help you prepare for your exams effectively..

  • Study the syllabus: Familiarize yourself with the syllabus for your respective exams. Understand the topics and concepts that are likely to be covered and focus your preparation accordingly.
  • Review past papers: Practice solving past exam papers to get an idea of the types of questions that may be asked. This will help you become familiar with the exam format and identify any areas where you need further improvement.
  • Understand the concepts: Chemistry involves understanding fundamental concepts and principles. Ensure you have a strong foundation by studying the theory thoroughly. Take notes, create summaries, and use diagrams or visual aids to help you grasp complex concepts.
  • Practice problem-solving: Chemistry often requires application and problem-solving skills. Practice solving numerical problems and chemical equations regularly to strengthen your problem-solving abilities. This will also help you become more familiar with the calculations and techniques needed for the exam.
  • Seek clarification: If you come across any challenging topics or concepts, don’t hesitate to seek clarification from your teachers, classmates, or online resources. Understanding the material thoroughly will boost your confidence during the exam. CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM..
  • Create a study schedule: Plan your study sessions and allocate sufficient time to each topic based on its importance and your level of understanding. Break down your study material into manageable chunks and set realistic goals to stay motivated.
  • Collaborate with peers: Consider forming study groups with classmates or friends who are also preparing for the exams. Discussing and explaining concepts to each other can enhance your understanding and retention of the material.
  • Utilize available resources: Take advantage of textbooks, reference materials, online resources, and educational platforms that provide study materials, practice questions, and tutorials specific to your exam. These resources can provide valuable insights and additional practice opportunities. CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.
  • Practice time management: During the exam, time management is crucial. Practice solving questions within the allocated time limits to improve your speed and accuracy. This will ensure that you can complete the exam within the given time frame.
  • Stay focused and maintain a healthy lifestyle: Avoid distractions and create a conducive study environment. Take regular breaks, exercise, eat nutritious meals, and get enough sleep to keep your mind and body in optimal condition for studying.

Remember, success in any exam is a result of consistent effort, effective preparation, and a positive mindset. Good luck with your exams!

WAEC Chemistry Questions and Answers 2022:

Furthermore, the questions below are the WAEC Chemistry Questions. Going through them will make you ready to score high in your WAEC 2021 Chemistry Examination. Congratulations.

  • How many alkoxy alkanes can be obtained from the molecular formula C4 H4O4

ANSWER: C (3)

  • Element Y has two isotopes Y and Y present in the ratio 1:3. The relative atomic mass of Y would be

ANSWER: C (21.5)

  • What condition favors the formation of the product for the endothermic reaction, N2O4(g) —><—– 2NO2(g)

A. Decrease in pressure

B. A decrease in volume

C. An increase in pressure

D. A constant volume

ANSWER: A ( Decrease in pressure)

  • Elements X and Y have electronic configurations 1S22S22P4 and 1S22S22P63S23P1 respectively. When they combine the formula of the compound formed is

ANSWER: B (Y2X3)

CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM

  • A solution of 0.20 mole of NaBr and 0.20 mole of MgBr2 in 2.0 dm3 of water is to be analyzed. How many moles of Pb(NO3 )2 must be added to precipitate all the bromide as insoluble PbBr2

A. 0.30 mol

B. 0.10 mol

C. 0.20 mol

D. 0.40 mol

ANSWER: A (0.30 mol)

  • Na2CO3 + HCl —-> NaHCO3 + NaCl. The indicator most suitable for this reaction should have pH equal to.

ANSWER: D (9)

  • A saturated solution of silver trioxocarbonate (IV), was found to have a concentration of 1.30 x 10-5 moldm-3 . The solubility product of the trioxocarbonate (IV) is

A. 8.79 x 10-15

B. 1.69 x 10-10

C. 1.82 x 10-11

D. 9.84 x 10-10

ANSWER: A (8.79 x 10-15)

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR THE 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM

  • 100.0g of KClO3 was added to 40.0 cm^3 of water to give a saturated solution at 298K. If the solubility of the salt is 20.0 moldm^-3 at 298K, what percentage of the salt is left undissolved? {K= 39, Cl = 35.5, O = 16}
  • Tetraoxosulphate (VI) ions are the final test using

A. acidified silver nitrate

B. acidic barium chloride

C. lime water

D. dilute hydrochloric acid

ANSWER: D (dilute hydrochloric acid)

  • When platinum electrodes are used during the electrolysis of copper (II) tetraoxosulphate (IV) solution, the solution gets progressive

D. Atmospheric

ANSWER: A (Acidic)

WAEC 2022/2023 Chemistry Theory Questions

PAPER 2 (ESSAY) SECTION A

  • (a) When calcium oxide and coke are heated in an electric furnace, the products are carbon (ii) oxide and calcium carbide (CaC2), write the equation for this reaction.

(b) The addition of water to calcium carbide leads to the formation of calcium hydroxide and ethyne. Write the equation for the production of ethyne.

  • Calculate the percentage by mass of silicon tetrachloride. [2 marks]
  • Ammonia, NH3, and phosphine, Ph3, are the hydrides of the first two elements in group 5. (a) Draw a dot and cross diagram for the ammonia molecule. [2 marks] (b) Sketch and explain the shape of the ammonia molecule. [3 marks]
  • The first ionization energy of chlorine is +1260KJmol-1. (a) Define the term first ionization energy. (b) State and explain the general trend in the values of the first ionization energy for the elements across the period, sodium to argon in the periodic table.
  • Compound A consists of carbon and hydrogen only. The compound was found to contain 80% carbon by mass. (a) Calculate the empirical formula of compound A using the data above. (b) The relative molecular mass of compound A was found to be 30. Use this information to deduce the molecular formula of compound A. [H = 1.00 C = 12.00]
  • State two factors other than a change in temperature or the use of a catalyst that influence the rate of a chemical reaction.
  • Identify the solid remaining when each of the following is heated. (a) lithium trioxonitrate (V) (b) potassium trioxonitrate (V) (c) calcium trioxonitrate (V)

CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For the 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM

  • An aqueous solution has a pH of 4.0. (a) (i) What is the hydrogen ion concentration of the solution? (ii) What effect will it have on litmus paper? (iii) Which of the following salt solutions would have the same effect on litmus? Give a reason for your answer. NH4Cl(aq); NaCl(aq) ; CH3OON(aq). (b) (i) Differentiate between a fine chemical and a heavy chemical. (ii) Name two sources of air pollution. (iii) Suggest one way of reducing air pollution in cities
  • (a) (i) Explain briefly the fermentation process. (ii) Write a balanced equation for the fermentation of glucose. (iii) What substance must be added to glucose solution to ferment it? (iv) Explain briefly why tightly corked glass filled to the brim with palm wine shatters on standing. (b) State one industrial application of each of the following methods of separation: (i) Crystallization; (ii) Fractional distillation. (c) Explain the following terms: (i) Saponification; (ii) Esterification. (d) Write a balanced equation to illustrate each of the terms in (c). (e) i) What is hydrocarbon compound? (ii) Name two principal sources of hydrocarbons.

CHEMISTRY THEORY AND OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR 2021/2022 WAEC EXAM

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM

  • (a) Two elements represented by the letters Q and R have atomic numbers 9 and 12 respectively. (i) Write the electron configuration of R. (ii) To what group does Q belong in the periodic table? (iii) Write the formula of the compound formed when Q combines with R. (iv) Explain briefly, why Q is a good oxidizing agent. (v) State whether R would be expected to form acidic or basic oxide. (b) (i) State two assumptions of the kinetic theory of gases. (ii) When some solids are heated, they change directly into the gaseous state. What name is given to this phenomenon? (iii) List two substances that exhibit the phenomenon mentioned in (ii). (iv) Write an expression to show the mathematical relationship between the rate of diffusion of a gas and its vapor.

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HOW TO PARTNER WITH US: CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

In conclusion, mastering the Chemistry theory and objectives is crucial for success in the upcoming 2022/2023 WAEC exam. By diligently studying and understanding the key concepts, practicing with a wide range of questions, and seeking clarification when needed, students can enhance their understanding of this fascinating subject. Remember, a strong foundation in Chemistry will not only boost your performance in the exam but also equip you with valuable knowledge for future academic pursuits. Stay focused, stay determined, and embark on this journey with confidence. Best of luck in your preparations and may you excel in the upcoming WAEC exam! CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

Finally, for those who would want to win a scholarship and at times part-time studies, this website is for you. For career professional tutorials for ICAN, CITN, NBA exams, etc. this site is available for your current information. Therefore, send us your questions through the comment box. And keep in touch with us by filling in the email list box below for further updates. Our social media buttons will also help if you like us on then or follow us. Thanks Get ready with CHEMISTRY THEORY And OBJECTIVE: QUESTIONS & ANSWERS For 2022/2023 WAEC EXAM.

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WAEC Chemistry Questions And Answers For 2023 | Objectives And Theories

waec questions and answers

Join one of the lucky candidates who will have access to the May/June WAEC Chemistry Questions and Answers for 2023 | Objectives and Theories . It is not everyone who is writing the 2023 WAEC examination will be privileged to see the information that I am going to reveal to you here.

Are you a candidate who is sitting for the May/June WAEC examination for 2023? This article is very important for you especially if you are a science student.

In this article, I am going to be revealing to you those questions that you are going to see in chemistry on the examination date. If you are interested in becoming one of the early birds who will have access to the exact questions and the answers, kindly read this article to the end.

First of all, let me start by answering some of the frequently asked questions about WAEC chemistry questions every year. These questions are going to give you more guides about the 2023 WAEC questions and how you would be able to answer them.

How Many Questions are in WAEC Chemistry

How to answer waec chemistry questions, reasons for poor performance in chemistry, what you should read for waec chemistry 2023, waec chemistry objective questions for 2023, waec chemistry objective answers for 2023, waec chemistry essay questions for 2023, related links, related posts.

The WAEC chemistry examination is usually made up of not less than three subsections with each subsection containing a specified number of questions.

This section presents to you the number of questions that you are going to see in the WAEC Chemistry Examination for 2023.

This part is usually the objective part of the Chemistry examination. It is usually made up of 50 questions in all and candidates are expected to answer all the questions contained therein.

These are usually compulsory questions that you are expected to finish. They carry 1 mark respectively, making a total of 50 marks.

In this section, you will be given about 7 questions and would be required to answer just 5 questions in all. While entering this part, it is necessary to check for the question(s) that have been made compulsory by WAEC.

The paper 3 is made up of 3 questions which are usually practical questions. You would be expected to answer all the questions compulsorily.

They are quite good number of students who have concluded that chemistry is one of the hardest subjects to write in WAEC examination. This could be as a result of how they were thought in their respective secondary schools. Some of them do not even have a good knowledge of chemistry.

For one to pass chemistry examination at one sitting in WAEC , they are some principles that must be put in practice. These are the rules that are applicable during the time of writing the examination.

If you follow the guidelines that I am going to give you in this section, then you will make an excellent result in chemistry

The principles for answering WAEC chemistry examination include the following:

  • Read Instructions

Once you have settled to take your examination in the examination hall, the next thing that you must do first is to read through the instructions on top of the page before you can proceed with reading the questions.

Most times, some instructions are specific to some questions, maybe one or two questions. Here, you still have to take those instructions very serious.

2. Read Carefully

Before you can proceed to answering WAEC chemistry questions, it is highly recommended that you read carefully to understand any question before you can start to answer the questions.

It is possible to see questions that would be similar to what you have been seeing before, probably in past questions, but they are not the same.

This is the point where it is very necessary that you meticulously go through the question before you answer, to avoid choosing the wrong option for objectives and giving wrong explanations for theory questions.

3. Take Note of Compulsory Questions

In every WAEC examination, there is/are usually some questions that are specially made compulsory by the West Africa Examination Council. These questions are always seen in the paper 2 which is theory aspect of it.

You must ensure that you are able to answer those compulsory questions before you can think of answering any other ones. The compulsory questions do carry special mark.

4. Start with the Simplest

The complexity of every question in WAEC chemistry varies. After you have gone through the questions, you would be able to tell which of the questions are simple and the ones that are difficult.

The best approach in such case requires that you answer the questions from the simplest to the most complex ones. This is important because it will help to cushion you against examination tension.

Not only that, it also helps in the management of your time. If you are finding any question difficult to answer, you have to leave it and go to the next. Thereafter, you can re-visit those questions that you have left unanswered.

5. Attempt all the Question

Though it is advisable that you start answering your question from the simplest, leaving the more difficult ones at the first attempts, it does not imply that you should submit you examination without answering those ones you skipped.

It quite understandable that you may not know all the asked questions, you are still required choose your answers even the ones that you do not really know very well.

Sometime, your guess can fall in place and become the right answer. So always ensure that you attempt all you question before you submit.

6. Review your Answers

After you have attempted the entire given questions, you still have to go through all the answers to check for any errors and possible corrections.

By going through the questions, you would be able to see any skipped question(s), if any and the ones you mistakenly clicked the wrong options.

It is an error to assume that WAEC chemistry examination is hard. Failure to perform excellently in WAEC chemistry examination is a question of whether the candidate knows the right things to do and if he/she is doing it right.

The poor performance that have been seen in some candidates’ results over the years are as a result of poor application of the basic principles for writing WAEC chemistry examination and some other factors that I am going to show you here.

1. Inadequate Preparation

This is the most important aspect of the reasons for poor performance in WAEC Chemistry that should be considered.

It is obtainable in all areas that when there is poor preparation for any examination they will be poor result. As a good student, you are required to prepare for the WAEC chemistry examination to the point that you would be sure of scoring high.

2. Poor Time Management

Time management is another important factor that can lead to poor performance in every examination. You should learn how to manage your time especially when you are in the examination hall.

The practice of time management starts from the period of the candidate’s preparation for the examination. Once you can answer your past questions comfortably with the limited time that will be provided, you will still manage your time very well on the examination date.

3.  Lack of Adherence to Given Instructions

There are some students who are fond of ignoring instructions when come for examination. Jumping into answering of questions without reading the given instructions is very wrong. This contributes in a big way to poor performance in the examination.

If you want to have good performance in WAEC chemistry, you have to strictly pay close attention to any given instructions.

4. Submitting Incomplete Answers

When a candidate submits the examination without attempting all the questions, it will automatically affect his/her score. It is important you answer all the questions before your submission.

In WAEC chemistry examination, they are some topics that are considered very important. These topics are where most of the questions that are repeatedly asked by the WAEC for every year.

As you continue to read this section, I am going to reveal those topics to you. If you are able to read the chemistry topics that I am going to show you here very well before the examination, it means that you can attempt up to 90% of WAEC chemistry questions correctly.

These topics include the following:

  • Nature of Matter
  • Separation Techniques
  • Atomic Structure
  • Chemical Combination
  • Kinetic Theory of Matter
  • Acids, Bases and Salts
  • Periodic Table
  • Non-metals and their Compounds
  • Metals and their Compounds
  • Electrolysis
  • Energy and Chemical Reactions
  • Chemical Equilibrium
  • Rate of Reaction
  • Air and Air Pollution
  • Water, Solution and Solubility
  • Shapes of Molecules and Solids
  • Radioactivity
  • Hydrocarbon
  • Organic chemistry

However, you should note that reading with the WAEC syllables is the best practice. The topics listed above are just suggestion of areas that you can concentrate so as to get a good result in the WAEC chemistry examination.

The following are what you are likely going to see in the 2023 WAEC chemistry examination for objective section.

1. A mixture of sugar and sulphur can be separated by

A. dissolution in water, evaporation and filtration

B. filtration, evaporation and dissolution in water

C. dissolution in water, filtration and evaporation

D evaporation dissolution in water and filtration

2. Which of the following is a physical change?

A. Freezing ice-cream

B. Dissolving calcium in water

C. Burning kerosene

D. Exposing white phosphorus to air.

3. The percentage of water of crystallization in ZnSO.7H 2 O is

[Zn = 65, S = 32, O = 16 , H=1]

4. 0.0075 mole of calcium trioxocarbonate(IV) is added to 0.015 mole of a solution of hydrochloric acid. The volume of gas evolved at s.t p. is

[Molar volume of a gas at s t.p = 22.4dm 3 ]

5. A gas exerts pressure on its container because

A. the molecules of a gas collide with the walls of the container.

B some of the molecules are moving faster than others.

C. of the collisions of the molecules with each other

D. of the mass of the molecules of the gas

6. The basic assumption in the kinetic theory of gases that the collisions of the gaseous molecules are perfectly elastic implies that the

A. forces of attraction and repulsion are in equilibrium

B. gaseous molecules can occupy any available space

C. gaseous molecules will continue their motion indefinitely

D gases can be compressed

7. If an atom is represented as 11 23 X, which of the following deductions is correct?

A. It contains 12 protons.

B. It forms a covalent chloride.

C. Its atomic number is 23

D. It is an alkali metal.

8. If the relative molecular mass of an element is not a whole number, it can be deduced that the element is

A naturally radioactive

B. abundant in nature

C. a transition metal

D. an isotopic mixture

9. Cathode rays cause an object placed behind a perforated anode to cast a shadow on the screen. This observation shows that the rays

A. are positively charged

B. are negatively charged

C. have mass

D. travel in straight lines

10. Which quantum number divides shells into orbitals?

A. Principal

B. Azimuthal

C. Magnetic

11. The type of bonding in [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ] 2+ is

A. coordinate B. electrovalent C. metallic D. covalent.

12. The mixture of gases used in a photographer’s flash tube is

A. Argon and krypton

B. Krypton and Xenon

C helium and argon

D. argon and xenon

13. When sodium trioxocarbonate(IV) decahydrate loses its water of crystallization to the atmosphere, the process is

A deliquescence

B. efflorescence

C. hygroscopic

D. effervescence

14. Water can be obtained as the only product during the

A. combustion of hydrocarbons

B. neutralization of an acid by a base

C. combustion of hydrogen

D. Electrolysis of brine.

15. If 10.5g of lead (II) trioxonitrate (V) is dissolved in 20cm³ of distilled water at 18°C, the solubility of the solute in moldm -3 is

[Pb = 207 N = 14, O = 16]

16. For a given solute, the concentrations of its saturated solution in different solvents are

A. the same at the same temperature

B. different at the same temperature

C. the same at different temperatures

D. constant

17. The major source of oxides of nitrogen is from the burning of

D. chlorofluorocarbons

18. The acid used in electrolysis of water is dilute

C. H 2 SO 4

19. What volume of 1.5 M solution of KOH would contain 0 045 moles? A 67.50cm³

B 30.00cm 3

C. 6.75cm 3

20. The salt formed from a reaction between citric acid and sodium hydroxide in solution will be

21. The colour change observed when testing for reducing agents using acidified potassium heptaoxodichromate(VI) solution is

A. yellow to purple

B. orange to green

C. green to orange

D. purple to yellow

22. The oxidation state of Cr in K 2 Cr 2 O 7 is

23. Which of the following metals is purified commercially by electrolysis?

24. What current will deposit 3.25g of zinc in 2 hrs?

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[Zn = 65, F = 96500C mol – ¹]

25. C (s) +H 2 O (q) → H 2(q) +CO (q) ∆G for the reaction above at 1300K is – 43kJ At this temperature, the reaction is

A not feasible

B. at equilibrium

C. feasible

D. exothermic.

26. Two equal bulbs, one containing ammonia and the other nitrogen, are opened mouth-to-mouth to each other at room temperature. The entropy in the mixture of gases is likely to

A. remain unchanged

C. decrease

reaction rate diagram

27. In the diagram above, which of the curves represents the evolution of oxygen with time in the equation 2KCIO 3(s) → 2KCl (s) + 3O 2(g) ?

28. A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by providing a path that

A. raises the activation energy

B. increases the temperature

C. lowers the activation energy

D. increases the concentration.

29. CuO (s) + H 2(g) ↔ Cu (s) + H 2 O (l) .

What is the effect of increasing the pressure on the equilibrium reaction above?

A. The equilibrium is shifted to the left.

B. The equilibrium is shifted to the right.

C. There is no effect.

D. More H 2(g) is produced.

30. The equilibrium of an endothermic reaction which proceeds with an increase in volume can be shifted in the reverse direction by

A. increasing the temperature and decreasing the pressure

B. increasing the pressure and decreasing the temperature

C. decreasing the temperature and increasing the pressure

D. decreasing the pressure and decreasing the temperature

31. The oxidation of ammonia in excess air produces

32. Hydrogen sulphide gas can act as

A. an oxidizing agent

B. a dehydrating agent

C. a bleaching agent

D. a precipitating agent

33. The gasification of coke is used for the manufacture of

A. producer gas

B. natural gas

C. synthetic gas

D. industrial gas

34. The gas that is most useful in protecting humans against solar radiations is

A. chlorine

C. carbon (IV) oxide

D. hydrogen sulphide.

35. Which of the allotrope of carbon is a constituent of a lead pencil?

A. Graphite

C. Lampblack

36. Which of the following metals will show the highest metallic character?

37. Copper metal dissolves in concentrated trioxonitrate(V) acid with the resultant evolution of

38. The type of iron that is best suited for welding, making nails, chains and iron rods is

A. pig iron

B. wrought iron

C. cast iron

D. iron pyrites.

39. In the electrolytic extraction of aluminium, the function of the molten cryolite is to

A. precipitate aluminium hydroxide

B. lower the melting point of aluminium oxide

C. act as a raw material

D. act as a solvent

40. One of the products of the thermal decomposition of sodium trioxonitrate(V) is

B. nitrogen

C. sodium dioxonitrate (III)

D. sodium oxide.

41. A cracking process in petroleum refining can be represented by

A. heptane to heptene

B. heptane to 3-methylhexame

C. heptane to propene and butane

D. heptane to 2,3,3-trimethybutane.

42. Which of the following molecule has two other positional isomers?

A. CH 3 CH₂Br

B. CH 3 CHBr

C. CH 3 CBr₂F 2

D. CH₂CHBrCH₂Br

43. Which of the following class of compounds can exist as dipolar ions in solution?

A. Alkanoic acids.

B. Fatty acids.

C. Dialkanoic acids.

D. Amino acids.

44 Lucas reagent is used to test for

B. alkanoic acids.

C. alkanols

45. A compound commonly used for sterilization and preservation of specimens and food is

D. ammonia.

46. An organic compound reacted with bromine water to give a colourless solution. The compound is probably an

D. alkanone.

47. Which of the following hydrocarbons is mainly used as fuel?

A. Methylene.

B. Ethylene.

48. The molecular formula of a common organic laboratory anaesthetic is

49. The simplest branched-chain hydrocarbon is

50. Organic molecules that have the suffix-ene are unsaturated hydrocarbons that have

A. a single bond

B. a double bond

C. a triple bond

D. an ionic bond

See also: How to Check WAEC Result Online – 2023

ZnSO 4 .7H 2 O = 65 + 64 + 7(18) = 287

% water of crystallization = 126/287 x 100/1 = 44% (A)

4. CaCO 3 + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + CO 2 + H 2 O

1 mole of CaCO 3 produce 1 mole CO 2

∴ 0.0075 mole CaCO 3 will produce 0.0075 mole CO 2

1 mole of CO 2 occupy 22.4dm 3 = 22400cm 3

∴0.0075 CO 2 will occupy 0.0075 x 22400cm 3

5. A 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C

15. Pb(NO 3 ) 2 = 331

20 cm 3 of distilled water is saturated by 10.5g Pb(NO 3 ) 2

1000cm 3 will be saturated by

= 10.5/20 x 1000/1 = 525gdm -3

In moldmol -3 = 525/331 = 1.59 = 1.60moldm -3 (A)

16. A 17. C 18. C

19. 1.0M of 1000cm 3 contains 56g of KOH

1.5M of 1000cm 3 will contain 84g of KOH

∴1.5M contain 84/56 = 1.5M

i.e 1.5M = 1000cm 3

∴0.045 moles 1000/1 x 0.045 = 30.00cm 3 Ans = B

20. D 21. B

More answers loading…>>

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These are the kinds of theory questions that you are likely going to see in WAEC Chemistry for 2023.

1. Compound A consisting of carbon and hydrogen only. The compound was found to contain 80% carbon by mass. (a) Calculate the empirical formula of compound A using the data above. (b) The relative molecular mass of compound A was found to be 30. Use this information to deduce the molecular formula of compound A. [H = 1.00 C = 12.00]

2. (a) When calcium oxide and coke are heated in an electric furnace, the products are carbon (ii) oxide and calcium carbide (CaC2), write the equation for this reaction.

3. Calculate the percentage by mass of silicon tetrachloride. [2 marks] 4. Ammonia, NH3, and phosphine, Ph3, are the hydrides of the first two elements in group 5. (a) Draw a dot and cross diagram for the ammonia molecule. [2 marks] (b) Sketch and explain the shape of the ammonia molecule. [3 marks]

5. The first ionization energy of chlorine is +1260KJmol-1. (a) Define the term first ionization energy. (b) State and explain the general trend in the values of the first ionization energy for the elements across the period, sodium to argon in the periodic table.

6. An aqueous solution has a pH of 4.0. (a) (i) What is the hydrogen ion concentration of the solution? (ii) What effect will it have on litmus paper? (iii) Which of the following salt solutions would have the same effect on litmus? Give a reason for your answer. NH4Cl(aq); NaCl(aq) ; CH3OON(aq). (b) (i) Differentiate between a fine chemical and a heavy chemical. (ii) Name two sources of air pollution. (iii) Suggest one way of reducing air pollution in cities

WAEC Chemistry Theory Answers for 2023

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chemistry essay for waec 2023

  • 1.1 Chemistry WAEC Objective Questions
  • 2 SSCE WAEC Chemistry Theory Questions
  • 3 Chemistry WAEC Essay Questions
  • 4 Free WAEC Chemistry Exam Past Questions Download
  • 5 How to Get WASSCE Chemistry Exam Past Questions and Answers

SSCE WAEC Chemistry Objective Questions and Answers

CHEMISTRY Paper 1 (Objective Test Questions) Paper 1 will last for 1 hours Use HB pencil throughout.

Answer All Questions Each question is followed by four options lettered A to D. Find out the correct options for each question and shade in pencil on your answer sheet, the answer space which bears the same letter as the option you Chosen. Give only one answer to each question. An example is given below

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Chemistry WAEC Objective Questions

Which of the following elements reacts with water? A. Carbon B. Iodine C. Sodium D. Sulphur

The correct answer is Sodium, which is lettered C and therefore answer space C would be shaded. [A] [ B ] [C] [ D ]

Think carefully before you shade the answer spaces; erase completely any answer you wish to change.

Which of the following raw materials is used in the plastic industry? A. Ethene B. Methane C. Sulphur D. Hydrogen

Which of the following organic compounds can undergo both addition and substitution reactions? A. Petane B. Benzene C. Propane D. Hexane

Which of the following equations represents a redox reaction? A. AgNO 3 (aq) + KCl(ag)->AgCl(s)+ KNO 3 (aq) B. HNO 3 (aq)+ NaOH(aq) -> NaNO 3 (aq) + H 2 O(l) C. CaCO 3 (s) -> CaO(s) + CO 2 (g) D. 2H 2 S(g) + SO 2 (g) -> 2H 2 O(I) + 3S(g)

T he process of extraction of iron from its ore is A. decomposition. B. oxidation. C. reduction. D. sublimation.

What is the solubility of a salt if 0.4 g of it is obtained on evaporating 200 cm3 of its saturated solution to dryness? A. 0.08 gdm -3 B. 2.00 gdm -3 C. 8.00 gdm -3 D. 80.00 gdm -3

An acidic salt has A. double anions in its aqueous solution. B. a single cation in its aqueous solution. C. hydrogen ions in its aqueous solution. D. hydrogen atoms in its aqueous solution.

A reaction is endothermic if the A. reaction vessel feels cool during the reaction. B. enthalpy change is negative. C. bond forming energy exceeds bond breaking energy. D. heat of formation of reactants exceeds heat of formation of products.

In which of the following compounds does hydrogen form ionic compounds? A. CH 4 B. HCl C. NH 3 D. NaH

Consider the following reaction equation: Br 2 + 2KI -> 2KBr + I 2 . Bromine is acting as A. an oxidizing agent. B. a reducing agent. C. an acid. D. a base.

An organic compound has the empirical formula CH 2 . If its molar mass is 42 gmol-1 what is its molecular formula? [H = 1.0, C = 12.0] A. C 2 H 4 B. C 3 H 4 C. C 3 H 6 D. C 4 H 8

Ethene is produced from ethanol by A. decomposition. B. hydrolysis. C. ozonolysis. D. dehydration.

Consider the following equilibrium reaction: 2 AB(g) + B 2 (g) -><- 2AB 3 (g) AH = -XkJmol -1 The backward reaction will be favored by A. a decrease in pressure. B. an increase in pressure. C. a decrease in temperature. D. an introduction of a positive catalyst.

What is the mass of solute in 500 cm 3 of 0.005 moldm -3 H 2 SO 4 ? [H =1.0, O = 16.0, S = 32.0] A. 0.490 g B. 0.049 g C. 0.245 g D. 0.0245 g

Pure water can be made to boil at a temperature lower than 100 °C by A. reducing its quantity. B. decreasing the external pressure. C. distilling it. D. increasing the external pressure.

Consider the following sketch of the solubility curve of some substances. Note: scroll down to download the free chemistry waec questions in pdf copy to view the sketch

At what temperature does the solubility of KNO 3, equal that of NaNO 3 ? A. 0°C B. 20 °C C. 30 °C D. 40 °C

When a salt is added to its saturated solution, the salt A. dissolves and the solution becomes super saturated. B. dissolves and the solution becomes unsaturated. C. precipitates and the solution remains unchanged. D. dissolves and crystals are formed.

When substance X was added to a solution of bromine water, the solution became colorless. X is likely to be A. propane. B. propanoic acid. C. propyne. D. propanol.

The preferential discharge of ions during electrolysis is influenced by the A. mechanism of electrolysis. B. electrolytic reactions. C. nature of the electrode. D. type of electrolytic cell.

The valence electrons of 12 Mg are in the A. 3s orbital. B. 2px orbital. C. 2s orbital. D. 1s orbital.

Stainless Steel is an alloy comprising of A. Fe and C. B. Fe and Ni. C. Fe, C and Ni. D. Fe, C and Al.

The number of hydrogen ions in 1.0 dm 3 of 0.02 moldm -3 tetraoxosulphate(VI) acid is [NA = 6.02 x 1023] A. 1.2 x 10 22 B. 1.2 x 10 23 . C. 2.4 x 10 22 . D. 2.4 x 10 23 .

The most suitable substance for putting out petrol fire is A. water. B. carbon(IV)oxide. C. fire blanket. D. sand.

The following factors would contribute to environmental pollution except A. production of ammonia. B. manufacture of cement. C. photosynthesis. D. combustion.

The position of equilibrium in a reversible reaction is affected by A. particle size of the reactants. B. vigorous stirring of the reaction mixture. C. presence of a catalyst. D. change in concentration of the reactants.

The diagram below illustrates a conical flask containing water and ice.

NOTE: scroll down and download the free chemistry pdf past questions to see the diagram

Which of the following statements about the diagram is correct? A. The water is at a lower temperature than the ice B. Energy is absorbed when the ice changes to water C. Energy is released when the ice changes to water D. The water molecules vibrate about a fixed point

Which of the following statements best explains the differences between a gas and a vapor? A. Unlike gases, vapors are liquids at room temperature B. Unlike gases, vapor can easily be condensed into liquids C. Unlike gases, vapour is readily converted into solids D. Vapours are generally denser than gases

Consider the following reaction equation: 2HCl + Ca(OH) 2 –> CaCl 2 + H 2 O. What is the volume of 0.1 moldrn -3 HCl that would completely neutralize 25cm 3 of 0.3 moldm -3 Ca(OH) 2 ? A. 150 cm 3 B. 75 cm 3 C. 30 cm 3 D. 25 cm 3

Cu and HNO 3 are not suitable for preparing hydrogen gas because of their A. reactivity and oxidation respectively. B. conductivity and corrosiveness respectively. C. melting point and reduction respectively. D. electro negativity and solubility respectively.

Which of the following formulae cannot be an empirical formula? A. CH B. CH2 C. P2O5 D. N204

One of the criteria for confirming the purity of benzene is to determine its A. heat capacity. B. boiling point. C. mass. D. colour.

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SSCE WAEC Chemistry Theory Questions

Chemistry Paper 2 Paper 2 will last for 2 hours This paper consists of two sections A and B. Answer one questions from Section A and three questions from Section B.

Credit will be given for clarity of expression and orderly presentation of material.

SECTION A (1ai) Define the term fermentation. (1aii) Name the catalyst that can be used for this process.

(b) Name two factors which determines the choice of an indicator for an acid-base titration. (c) Consider the following reaction equation: [Fe + H2S04 ] FeS04 + H2. Calculate the mass of unreacted iron when 5.0g of iron reacts with 10cm3 of 1.0 moldrrv3 H SO [Fe = 56.0] (d) Name one: (di) Heavy chemical used in electrolytic cells; (dii) Fine chemical used in textile industries.

(e) Explain briefly how a catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction. (f) (i) Write the chemical formula for the product formed when ethanoic acid reacts with ammonia. (ii) Give the name of the product formed in 1 (f) (i)..

(g) List three properties of aluminum that makes it suitable for the manufacture of drink can. (h) State two industrial uses of alkylalkanoates. (i) List two effects of global warming. (j) Name two steps involved in the crystallization of a salt from its solution.

Chemistry WAEC Essay Questions

SECTION B. 2ai. State the collision theory of reaction rates. 2aii.Using the collision theory, explain briefly how temperature can affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

bi. Sketch a graphical representation of Charles’s law. bii. Calculate the volume of oxygen that would be required for the complete combustion of 2.5moles of ethanol at s.t.p. [ molar volume at s.t.p = 22.4dm3]

ci. Define esterification. cii. Give two uses of alkanoates. ciii. Give the products of the alkaline hydrolysis of ethyl ethanoate.

d. A tin coated plate and a galvanized plate were exposed for the same length of time. di. Which of the two plates corrodes faster? dii. Explain briefly your answer in 2 (d) (i).

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WAEC Chemistry Expo 2023 Essay and Objective for 24th May

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WAEC Chemistry Questions and Answers 2023 (100% Sure) Theory & Obj Solution

Get free Verified WAEC Chemistry Questions and Answers 2023.  WAEC May/June Free Chemistry EXPO answers.  West African Examinations Council Chemistry Theory and Objective Answers for you to have good WAEC result.  You will also understand how WAEC Chemistry questions are set and how to answer them. The West African Examinations Council is an examination board saddled with the responsibility of setting, testing and conducting WASSCE in all West African country.

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WAEC Chemistry Syllabus 2024/2025 (SSCE & GCE) Read & Download PDF

December 19, 2023 by A.Y 21 Comments

Hello Folks, In this article, I will share the latest WAEC Chemistry Syllabus. Note that the syllabus uploaded on the platform is up-to-date i.e the updated version. The West African Examination Council created this syllabus for candidates planning to write the senior secondary school examination, be it the private examination (first and second series) or school examination.

Waec chemistry syllabus

The Waec Chemistry Syllabus is a document that outlines everything that will be covered in the examination or class. As a student, Go through the topics and look for a different textbook to read and practice. Also, test your ability or how prepared you are using the online Wae Chemistry past question and answer.

How to use WAEC Chemistry Syllabus 2024/2025

  • Download the PDF version of the syllabus
  • Look for different Chemistry textbook
  • Search for the topic in the textbook. Read, meditate and assimilate on what you’ve read
  • Also, Look for WAEC Chemistry Series (Past Question) and treat it to know how well you’ve prepared.

RECOMMENDED LINKS

  • WAEC Syllabus for all subject
  • WAEC Chemistry Past Questions and Answers

WAEC Chemistry Syllabus 2024/2025

INTRODUCTION:  This syllabus is drawn purposely for examination, hence the topics are not necessarily arranged in the order in which they should be taught.

The following assumptions were made in the drawing of the syllabus:

  • That candidate must have covered the Integrated Science/Basic Science or General Science and Mathematics syllabuses at the Junior Secondary School (JSS)/Junior High School (J.H.S) level;
  • That candidate would carry out as many of the suggested activities and project work as possible, and consequently develop the intended competencies and skills as spelt out in the relevant Chemistry teaching syllabuses;
  • That schools which offer the subject have well-equipped laboratories.

Note: Candidates are required to have knowledge of the significant figures, S.I. units, and the conventional/IUPAC system of nomenclature.

AIMS: The aims and objectives of the syllabus are to assess candidates’

  • understanding of basic chemistry concepts;
  • level of acquisition of laboratory skills including awareness of hazards and safety measures;
  • level of awareness of the inter-relationship between chemistry and other disciplines;
  • level of awareness of the linkage between chemistry and industry/environment/everyday life in terms of benefits and hazards;
  • skills of critical and logical thinking.

DOWNLOAD PDF

Waec chemistry 2024 examination scheme.

There shall be three papers – Papers 1, 2, and 3 all of which must be taken.  Paper 1 and 2 shall be a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.

PAPER 1 :  Will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions drawn from Section A of the syllabus (ie the portion of the syllabus which is common to all candidates) . Candidates will be required to answer all the questions within 1 hour for 50 marks.

PAPER 2 : Will be a 2-hour essay paper covering the entire syllabus and carrying 100 marks. The paper will be in two sections; Sections A and B.

  • Section A : Will consist of ten short structured questions drawn from the common portion of the syllabus. (i.e. Section A of the syllabus). Candidates will be required to answer all the questions for 25 marks.
  • Section B : Will consist of two questions from the common portion of the syllabus (i.e. Section A of the syllabus) and two other questions from the section of the syllabus which is perculiar to the country of the candidate (i.e. either Section B or C of the syllabus).  Candidates will be required to answer any three of the questions. Each question shall carry 25 marks.

PAPER 3:  This shall be a 2-hour practical test for school candidates or 1 hour 30 minutes alternative to practical work test for private candidates. Each version of the paper shall contain three compulsory questions and carry 50 marks.

The questions shall be on the following aspects of the syllabus:

  • One question on quantitative analysis;
  • One question on qualitative analysis;
  • The third question shall test candidates’ familiarity with the practical activities suggested in their teaching syllabuses.

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JAMB CBT 2024 - Candidates, Schools, Centres, Resellers - Get Ready!

Chemistry WAEC Past Questions

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  • A. Cu(NO 3 ) 3 + NO + N 2 O 4 + H 2 O
  • B. Cu(NO 3 ) 2 + NO + H 2 O
  • C. CuO + NO 2 + H 2 O
  • D. Cu(NO 2 ) 3 + NO 2 + H 2 O
  • A. all the reactants have been used up
  • B. all the products have been formed
  • C. there is no further change in temperature
  • D. the rates of the forward and backward reactions are equal
  • E. the rate of formation of the products decreases with time
  • A. lactic acid
  • B. amino acid
  • C. propanoic acid
  • D. palmitic acid
  • E. stearic acid
  • A. manufacture of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid
  • B. prevention of the growth of fungi
  • C. vulcanization rubber
  • D. manufacture of dyes
  • E. coating of steel to prevent rusting
  • A. is a double decomposition
  • B. is a neutralization
  • C. is reversible
  • D. is usually catalysed
  • E. attains equilibrium after a few seconds
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chemistry essay for waec 2023

WAEC Chemistry Essay and Objective 2023 (EXPO) Tips to Pass WAEC Chemistry Questions Related posts: WAEC Chemistry Questions and Answers 2023 WAEC Chemistry Questions and Answers 2023 Loading… The 2023 answers will be posted here on 24th May during the exam WAEC Chemistry OBJ Answers Loading… 1-10: ACADABBDAC 11-20: BCAABBCCBB 21-30: ACBABDACBB

The WAEC Chemistry examination consists of two main sections: Objectives and Essay. The Objectives section contains multiple-choice questions that test students' basic understanding of Chemistry concepts. On the other hand, the Essay section requires students to provide detailed explanations and solutions to various Chemistry problems.

Objectives Section The objectives section of the WAEC GCE Chemistry exam tests your knowledge and understanding of various concepts. It consists of multiple-choice questions that require you to select the correct answer from the options provided. Here are some key points to keep in mind for this section: 1. Familiarize Yourself with Past Questions

WAEC GCE 2023 CHEMISTRY (ESSAY & OBJ ) ANSWERS (12th December) Answers loading . Answers loading.. Completed!!! Make Up to ₦150,000 Now - Click here To Register!!! For Any Enquiry, Call or Text: +234 8065582389 or WhatsApp: +234 8065582389. Thank You for Choosing The God of All Exams - EXAMKING.NET Thank You for Choosing The God of All ...

WAEC GCE Chemistry Answers 2023. PAPER 2 [Essay] Answer any FOUR questions. Write your answers on the answer booklet provided. 1. (a) (i) What is the common name given to the group VII elements? (ii) Name the hydrides of the first two elements in group VII. (iii) State three chemical properties of group VII elements.

2023 Waec Chemistry Questions and Answers Objective (paper 1) The 2023 Waec Chemistry questions and answers loading! 2023 Chemistry objective answers Loading!! 2023 Waec Chemistry Theory Answers Loading!!!

You will find WAEC GCE Chemistry Objective Answers, WAEC Chemistry Essay 2023, WAEC GCE 2023 Chemistry, and the tips you need to pass your WAEC GCE Chemistry examination with ease. Table of Contents WAEC GCE Chemistry Questions and Answers 2023 (Expo) WAEC GCE Chemistry Essay 2023 Related posts: WAEC GCE Chemistry Questions and Answers 2023 (Expo)

SCHOLARSHIPS & OPPORTUNITIES Chemistry 3 (Alternative to Practical Work) - 30mins 2:00pm - 3:30pm A. 2023 WAEC GCE CHEMISTRY ESSAY (THEORY) ANSWERS | 12TH DECEMBER, 2023 Answers Loading................................................... B. 2023 WAEC GCE CHEMISTRY OBJECTIVES (OBJ) ANSWERS | 12TH DECEMBER, 2023

The WAEC Chemistry will be written on Wednesday 8th June 2023, Chemistry - Essay & OBJ. For more WAEC subjects questions and answers you can check this website, you'll also find the available tutorial for WAEC, NECO and JAMB. Recommended: NECO Result 2023 is out: Check Now Free Online | NECO SSCE Result Checker

The WAEC Chemistry syllabus encompasses a wide range of topics, including fundamental concepts of chemistry, atomic structure, the periodic table, chemical bonding, chemical reactions, stoichiometry, solutions, equilibrium, acids and bases, organic chemistry, and analytical chemistry.

CLICK HERE TO GET FREE WAEC 2023 CHEMISTRY (ESSAY AND OBJECTIVE) QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS DIRECTLY ON WHATSAPP MAY/JUNE EXAM RIGHT NOW. Objective (OBJ) Section: The OBJ section consists of multiple-choice questions. Each question carries equal marks, and there is no negative marking for incorrect answers. The total marks for the OBJ section may ...

WAEC 2022/2023 Chemistry Theory Questions. PAPER 2 (ESSAY) SECTION A. (a) When calcium oxide and coke are heated in an electric furnace, the products are carbon (ii) oxide and calcium carbide (CaC2), write the equation for this reaction. (b) The addition of water to calcium carbide leads to the formation of calcium hydroxide and ethyne.

WAEC Chemistry Essay Questions for 2023 WAEC Chemistry Theory Answers for 2023 Related Links Related Posts How Many Questions are in WAEC Chemistry The WAEC chemistry examination is usually made up of not less than three subsections with each subsection containing a specified number of questions.

SSCE WAEC Chemistry Objective Questions and Answers. CHEMISTRY Paper 1 (Objective Test Questions) Paper 1 will last for 1 hours Use HB pencil throughout. Answer All Questions Each question is followed by four options lettered A to D. Find out the correct options for each question and shade in pencil on your answer sheet, the answer space which bears the same letter as the option you Chosen.

WAEC 2023 Chemistry (CHEM) OBJ & Essay Answers . NB: Online WAEC chemistry answers arrive 3 hour Before the exam starts (keep refreshing this page). Visit This Link to Join Our Whatsapp Group. NB: Please only share this page with reputable students. This page will be removed as soon as the exam is over and a new one will be made for the next exam.

WAEC GCE Chemistry Syllabus 2023. The WAEC GCE Chemistry syllabus 2023 serves as a roadmap for students preparing for the examination, delineating the breadth and depth of topics they need to cover. Understanding the structure and content of this syllabus is essential for effective preparation. Overview of the Syllabus:

WAEC Chemistry Expo 2023 Essay and Objective Paper is Categorized in to 2 parts: WAEC Chemistry Theory 2023 WAEC Chemistry Objective 2023 Here on zamgist, we have solved all the questions. That is 2023 Waec Chemistry Theory and Objective 2023.

WAEC GCE Chemistry 2023 Question and Answers: Get WAEC GCE Chemistry Objective & essay questions and answers for Tuesday, 12th December, 2023, Paper III & II: Objective & Essay -Chemistry - 9:30am - 11:00am, Objective - 11:00am - 12:15pm.

WAEC questions and answers are provided for free. We will do same during Other Exam like WAEC GCE. WAEC 2023 Chemistry Questions will be posted in this page. Our Team are right now with the question paper. It is under verification and once the verification process complete, we will go ahead to upload it here.

How to use WAEC Chemistry Syllabus 2023/2024. Download the PDF version of the syllabus; Look for different Chemistry textbook; Search for the topic in the textbook. Read, meditate and assimilate on what you've read ... PAPER 2: Will be a 2-hour essay paper covering the entire syllabus and carrying 100 marks. The paper will be in two sections ...

21-30: ACBABDACBB 31-40: ABBDAADCDD 41-50: ADBDACADCD 2023 WAEC CHEMISTRY (CHEM) THEORY (ESSAY) ANSWERS: OR OR 3. More Answers Loading............................... TO SUBSCRIBE FOR 2023 WAEC CHEMISTRY ESSAY & OBJ ANSWERS VIA LINK JUST GO OUT AND BUY MTN CARDS OF N600 ( 400 + 400 = 800)

A. lactic acid B. amino acid C. propanoic acid D. palmitic acid E. stearic acid View Answer & Discuss (5) WAEC 1988 4 The following are uses of sulphur except A. manufacture of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid B. prevention of the growth of fungi

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